>under some form of coercion other than the worker's financial needs.
I like the way that financial needs is considered coercion, but is just exempted. I wonder what the basis for the exemption is. How can it be justified compared to other forms of coercion (or the use of financial coercion in other areas) without resorting to special pleading?
I like the way that financial needs is considered coercion, but is just exempted. I wonder what the basis for the exemption is. How can it be justified compared to other forms of coercion (or the use of financial coercion in other areas) without resorting to special pleading?